Romans 1:4

By brotherlog

i’ll stop here on verse 4… so one of you guys continue from verse 5… and also keep up with everyone in interpreting the verses so that there wouldn’t be the long delay before each posting… sorry guys. and also i’m sure everyone may have things that others may not have… and that is the whole point of doing this… so that we can comment on each others work…

hey man am i suppose to post in post or page? and oh yeah thomas and dan my questions are included in my post so you guys have to read the whole thing…

 

v.4

  • Okay this verse has ideas that I’ve had difficulty understanding… “declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead” or others may put it as “appointed son of God in power”.
  • Well I’ve seen McAurthur see this clause as Christ being given the title of Son of God and this idea is backed by guys like Moule who puts it this way, “one who is king by right of birth is yet ‘made’ king by being crowened.”
  • So what I’m getting from these two is that the reason why Christ rarely used the title “Son of God” and preferred “Son of Man” in his earthly ministry is that the title of “Son of God” was not decreed/appointed/declared until His resurrection.
  • But here is the question- was Christ not the Son of God from the beginning just as he was after the resurrection? Because that is the understanding of most lay Christians… that was the way I understood it, that “Son of God” was to help us understand the relationship of Christ with the Father in the scheme of the trinity.
  • Also can titles be added on to God? Because when I think of being appointed or declared something… then that person is being appointed or declared into something that he is not, and if we take it the way Mac daddy and Moule takes it then it’s as if Christ is being promoted. Do you guys see what I’m trying to get at? This is a difficult passage for me to grasp and I don’t buy McAurthr’s and Moule’s interpretation.
  • Oh yeah and to further increase the confusion where in the world did “with Power” or “in Power” come from?
  • Morrison explains that “with power” may go along with “Son of God” because while Jesus was on earth he was in weakness because he took the form of man and he set his glory aside, humbling himself. But when he ascended Jesus got everything back.
  • And how does “according to the Spirit of holiness” come into play? Morrison believes that Paul is talking about the Holy Spirit’s role in resurrection and designation of Christ as the powerful Son of God. He sites Black who states “according to common Jewish belief, the resurrection of the dead was to be the work of the Holy Spirit so the verse can be taken as “Christ was divinely decreed Son of God ‘in power’ i.e. miraculously, by a mighty act of God, through the work of the Holy Spirit effecting his Resurrection.”
  • Well my question is this 1. does scripture state that there is a specific agent by which resurrection takes place? Who raised Christ? Or who will raise us? Was it the Father or was the Spirit or was it Christ himself… this is when I say Jesus, God , Bible… hahaha because I don’t know.
  • Okay I’m gonna stop here because just doing this one verse is exhausting…

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