Q: But here is the question- was Christ not the Son of God from the beginning just as he was after the resurrection?
A: First thing’s first: Scripture clearly teaches that Jesus was the Son of God prior to His resurrection (cf. Mat. 3:17; Mark 1:9; Luk. 3:22). So whatever Rom 1:4 means, it does not contradict eternal sonship of Christ. The thoelogical question you’ve asked is actually a loaded question MacArthur once espoused but later rescinded. So, there is actually much written about the subject. If you want to read up on this, I suggest you start with http://www.gty.org.uk/articles/sonship2A.htm. Here are my thoughts: Scripture never states that the second person of the Trinity was ever non-Son; and since Scripture profusely describes Him as the Son, the burden of proof falls on the side that maintains incarnational sonship (i.e., He became Son at incarnation). I haven’t heard any compelling arguments for incarnational sonship; therefore, on the bases of overwhelming evidence for eternal sonship I maintain eternal sonship.
Q: Also can titles be added on to God?
A: I’m not sure whether I’m understanding you correctly here. You assume that the import of “appoint/declare” is becoming something you’re not already. Grant that, I think you’re asking: can God become something in a point in time that He was not previously? If that is your question, the answer is no. God is all He is from eternity past to eternity future (recall the name of God: “I am who I am”?). We call this “immutability” in theology. Read a decent theology book like Grudem or Erickson and get a scoup on immutability, if you’re interested.
Q: And how does “according to the Spirit of holiness” come into play?
Α: I hold that spirit here is referring to the spirit of the person of Jesus. The reason for it is quite simple. Paul addresses Jesus’ identity as the Christ/Messiah upon two bases: his flesh and his spirit. With the former, he explains that Jesus had a genealogical relationship to David thus legitimizing his Messiahship. You would then think that the second one would complement the first, therefore, when spirit is mentioned it isn’t speaking of the third person of the Trinity, i.e., the Holy Spirit, but the soul/spirit of Jesus which was spotless and holy. This also best explains why Paul doesn’t use the expression “Holy Spirit” but “spirit of holiness.” BTW, keep in mind that Paul wrote in all caps, hence ignore all capitalization when you read. So, all in all, your question becomes irrelevant the way I understand the passage. That is to say, those who hold that spirit here is in fact the third person of the Trinity have a mess to clean up. Not I, though. =)
Q: Well my question is this 1. does scripture state that there is a specific agent by which resurrection takes place? Who raised Christ? Or who will raise us? Was it the Father or was the Spirit or was it Christ himself… this is when I say Jesus, God , Bible… hahaha because I don’t know.
A: This question appears to stem from your previous question. So, in a sense, it’s irrelevant from my understanding of the text. But let me quickly say this, though: Scripture indicates that the Father raised the Son from the dead (cf. Acts 2:24, 32; Eph. 1:20). There is more to it than this, i.e., there is a difference between the transitive verb “raise” and the intransitive “rise.” With the latter, NT would simply state that Jesus rose from the dead, hence no agent mentioned, but just because an agent isn’t mentioned doesn’t mean that there wasn’t an agent. So, all in all, Scripture teaches that Jesus rose from the dead because the Father raised Him. Okay, having said that, it sounds like your question goes beyond just the interpretation of Rom 1:4. Is there a real theological issue here or is it more just out of curiosity? If the former, let me know what the root issue is.